Safety Officer Quiz
1. What is the primary role of a Safety Officer?
A) Increase productivity at all costs
B) Ensure compliance with safety regulations
C) Handle payroll for employees
D) Supervise marketing campaigns
Answer: B) Ensure compliance with safety regulations
Explanation: A Safety Officer’s main duty is to enforce workplace safety standards and ensure compliance with OSHA (or local) regulations.
2. Which of the following is a key component of a Risk Assessment?
A) Identifying hazards
B) Calculating employee salaries
C) Designing company logos
D) Organizing team-building events
Answer: A) Identifying hazards
Explanation: Risk assessment involves identifying potential hazards, evaluating risks, and implementing control measures.
3. What does PPE stand for?
A) Personal Productivity Equipment
B) Protective Professional Equipment
C) Personal Protective Equipment
D) Professional Performance Evaluation
Answer: C) Personal Protective Equipment
Explanation: PPE refers to gear like helmets, gloves, and goggles used to protect workers from hazards.
4. Which agency is responsible for enforcing workplace safety in the U.S.?
A) FDA
B) EPA
C) OSHA
D) FBI
Answer: C) OSHA
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulates workplace safety in the U.S.
5. What is the first step in emergency response planning?
A) Conducting a fire drill
B) Identifying potential emergencies
C) Issuing safety fines
D) Purchasing office supplies
Answer: B) Identifying potential emergencies
Explanation: Emergency planning starts with recognizing possible hazards (fire, chemical spills, etc.).
6. What is the purpose of a Job Safety Analysis (JSA)?
A) To increase work speed
B) To identify and mitigate job-related hazards
C) To evaluate employee performance
D) To schedule vacations
Answer: B) To identify and mitigate job-related hazards
Explanation: A JSA breaks down tasks to spot risks and implement safety controls.
7. What color is typically used for fire safety equipment signs?
A) Blue
B) Green
C) Red
D) Yellow
Answer: C) Red
Explanation: Red is the standard color for fire extinguishers, alarms, and emergency stops.
8. What is the minimum safe distance from overhead power lines?
A) 3 feet
B) 10 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 50 feet
Answer: B) 10 feet
Explanation: OSHA requires a minimum 10-foot clearance from overhead power lines to prevent electrocution.
9. Which fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Answer: C) Class C
Explanation: Class C extinguishers are for electrical fires, while Class A (ordinary combustibles), B (flammable liquids), and D (metals) cover other types.
10. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
A) To track employee attendance
B) To provide hazard information about chemicals
C) To schedule maintenance
D) To calculate taxes
Answer: B) To provide hazard information about chemicals
Explanation: SDS documents detail chemical properties, hazards, and safety measures.
11. What is the leading cause of workplace injuries?
A) Slips, trips, and falls
B) Overworking
C) Loud noises
D) Poor lighting
Answer: A) Slips, trips, and falls
Explanation: Slips and falls are among the most common workplace accidents.
12. What does LOTO stand for?
A) Lock Out Tag Out
B) Lift Over Turn Over
C) Low Oxygen Training Option
D) Legal Occupational Task Order
Answer: A) Lock Out Tag Out
Explanation: LOTO ensures equipment is safely shut down during maintenance.
13. Which of the following is NOT a common workplace hazard?
A) Ergonomic strain
B) Chemical exposure
C) Employee birthdays
D) Electrical hazards
Answer: C) Employee birthdays
Explanation: While celebrations are fun, they are not a recognized workplace hazard.
14. What is the recommended maximum noise exposure level over an 8-hour shift?
A) 65 dB
B) 85 dB
C) 100 dB
D) 120 dB
Answer: B) 85 dB
Explanation: OSHA sets 85 dB as the permissible exposure limit (PEL) before hearing protection is required.
15. What should you do first in case of a chemical spill?
A) Evacuate the area
B) Clean it up immediately
C) Ignore it
D) Take a photo for social media
Answer: A) Evacuate the area
Explanation: The priority is to ensure personnel safety before containment and cleanup.
16. What is the main purpose of a fire drill?
A) To test emergency evacuation procedures
B) To increase work efficiency
C) To train employees in first aid
D) To inspect office furniture
Answer: A) To test emergency evacuation procedures
Explanation: Fire drills prepare employees for safe and orderly evacuations during real emergencies.
17. Which of the following is a common ergonomic hazard?
A) Poor posture at a workstation
B) Loud machinery
C) Wet floors
D) Broken light bulbs
Answer: A) Poor posture at a workstation
Explanation: Ergonomics focuses on preventing musculoskeletal disorders from repetitive strain or poor posture.
18. What should be done before entering a confined space?
A) Check for toxic gases and oxygen levels
B) Enter quickly to save time
C) Ignore safety protocols
D) Bring food and drinks inside
Answer: A) Check for toxic gases and oxygen levels
Explanation: Confined spaces require atmospheric testing and permits to prevent asphyxiation or poisoning.
19. What is the correct order of the fire triangle components?
A) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen
B) Water, Air, Wood
C) Smoke, Flame, Ash
D) Electricity, Gas, Wind
Answer: A) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen
Explanation: A fire needs heat, fuel, and oxygen to sustain combustion.
20. Which type of hazard do safety gloves protect against?
A) Chemical burns
B) Noise exposure
C) Falling objects
D) Poor lighting
Answer: A) Chemical burns
Explanation: Gloves (e.g., nitrile, latex) shield hands from chemical exposure, cuts, or burns.
21. What is the best way to prevent back injuries when lifting heavy objects?
A) Bend at the waist and lift quickly
B) Use proper lifting techniques (bend knees, keep back straight)
C) Lift with one hand for balance
D) Avoid lifting altogether
Answer: B) Use proper lifting techniques (bend knees, keep back straight)
Explanation: Proper form reduces spinal strain and prevents musculoskeletal injuries.
22. What does a blue safety sign typically indicate?
A) Mandatory action (e.g., “Wear PPE”)
B) Fire equipment
C) Warning of danger
D) Emergency exit
Answer: A) Mandatory action (e.g., “Wear PPE”)
Explanation: Blue signs denote required actions under safety regulations.
23. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a Safety Officer?
A) Conducting safety training
B) Investigating workplace accidents
C) Designing company uniforms
D) Ensuring OSHA compliance
Answer: C) Designing company uniforms
Explanation: Uniform design falls under HR or management, not safety duties.
24. What is the minimum required frequency for OSHA safety training?
A) Every month
B) Annually
C) Every 5 years
D) Only when an accident occurs
Answer: B) Annually
Explanation: Most OSHA-mandated training (e.g., HazCom, fire safety) requires annual refreshers.
25. What should you do if you see a frayed electrical cord?
A) Continue using it
B) Tag it “Out of Service” and report it
C) Wrap it with tape
D) Ignore it
Answer: B) Tag it “Out of Service” and report it
Explanation: Damaged cords pose electrocution or fire risks and must be removed from use.
26. Which organization sets international safety standards?
A) OSHA
B) ISO
C) FBI
D) WHO
Answer: B) ISO
Explanation: The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) develops global safety standards (e.g., ISO 45001 for occupational health and safety).
27. What is the purpose of a near-miss report?
A) To punish employees
B) To identify and prevent future accidents
C) To track payroll hours
D) To celebrate close calls
Answer: B) To identify and prevent future accidents
Explanation: Near-miss reports help analyze risks before they cause injuries.
28. Which of the following is a physical workplace hazard?
A) Workplace gossip
B) Exposure to loud noise
C) Boring meetings
D) Low morale
Answer: B) Exposure to loud noise
Explanation: Noise is a physical hazard that can cause hearing loss.
29. What is the correct ratio of compressions to breaths in CPR?
A) 5:1
B) 15:2
C) 30:2
D) 50:5
Answer: C) 30:2
Explanation: Standard CPR involves 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths.
30. What does a green safety sign typically indicate?
A) Emergency exits/first aid
B) Danger
C) Mandatory PPE
D) Fire equipment
Answer: A) Emergency exits/first aid
Explanation: Green signs mark safety equipment, exits, or evacuation routes.
31. Which gas is commonly monitored in confined spaces?
A) Oxygen
B) Helium
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: A) Oxygen
Explanation: Low oxygen (<19.5%) or high oxygen (>23.5%) levels can be deadly in confined spaces.
32. What is the best way to handle a minor burn?
A) Apply ice directly
B) Run under cool water for 10+ minutes
C) Pop blisters immediately
D) Rub with butter
Answer: B) Run under cool water for 10+ minutes
Explanation: Cool water soothes burns; ice or butter can worsen damage.
33. What is the primary cause of electrical shocks?
A) Wet conditions + faulty wiring
B) Loud noises
C) Poor housekeeping
D) Lack of training
Answer: A) Wet conditions + faulty wiring
Explanation: Water conducts electricity, increasing shock risks.
34. Which fire extinguisher is used for flammable metals (e.g., magnesium)?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Answer: D) Class D
Explanation: Class D extinguishers are for metal fires (e.g., sodium, titanium).
35. What is the purpose of a safety audit?
A) To identify compliance gaps
B) To reduce employee breaks
C) To increase production speed
D) To decorate the workplace
Answer: A) To identify compliance gaps
Explanation: Audits assess whether safety protocols meet regulatory standards.
36. Which of the following is a biological hazard?
A) Mold
B) Broken ladder
C) Loud noise
D) Poor lighting
Answer: A) Mold
Explanation: Biological hazards include mold, viruses, and bacteria.
37. What is the first step in the hierarchy of hazard controls?
A) PPE
B) Elimination
C) Administrative controls
D) Substitution
Answer: B) Elimination
Explanation: The most effective control is removing the hazard entirely.
38. What does WHMIS stand for?
A) Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
B) Worker Health Management and Inspection Service
C) Worldwide Hazard Mitigation Standards
D) Waste Handling and Management Inspection System
Answer: A) Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
Explanation: WHMIS is Canada’s system for classifying hazardous chemicals.
39. What is the minimum eye protection required for welding?
A) Safety glasses
B) Face shield + goggles
C) Sunglasses
D) No protection needed
Answer: B) Face shield + goggles
Explanation: Welding requires protection from UV radiation, sparks, and debris.
40. When should a Safety Officer review the emergency action plan?
A) Every 5 years
B) Only after an accident
C) Annually or when workplace changes occur
D) Never
Answer: C) Annually or when workplace changes occur
Explanation: Emergency plans must stay current with workplace hazards.
41. What is the leading cause of fatal construction accidents?
A) Falls from heights
B) Overexertion
C) Stress
D) Poor Wi-Fi
Answer: A) Falls from heights
Explanation: Falls account for the majority of construction fatalities.
42. Which of the following is NOT a type of PPE?
A) Hard hat
B) Safety shoes
C) Company ID badge
D) Respirator
Answer: C) Company ID badge
Explanation: ID badges are for identification, not personal protection.
43. What is the safest way to dispose of broken glass?
A) Throw it in a regular trash bin
B) Use a puncture-proof container
C) Bury it outside
D) Leave it for custodians
Answer: B) Use a puncture-proof container
Explanation: Sharps containers prevent cuts and exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
44. What is the purpose of a permit-to-work system?
A) To track employee attendance
B) To authorize high-risk tasks (e.g., hot work)
C) To schedule vacations
D) To order office supplies
Answer: B) To authorize high-risk tasks (e.g., hot work)
Explanation: Permits ensure safety checks are completed before dangerous work begins.
45. What is the most critical factor in preventing workplace violence?
A) Installing metal detectors
B) Training employees to recognize warning signs
C) Banning all visitors
D) Ignoring conflicts
Answer: B) Training employees to recognize warning signs
Explanation: Proactive training helps de-escalate potential violence.
46. Which law protects whistleblowers who report safety violations?
A) OSHA’s Anti-Retaliation Provision
B) The Fair Labor Standards Act
C) The Privacy Act
D) The Equal Pay Act
Answer: A) OSHA’s Anti-Retaliation Provision
Explanation: Employees cannot be punished for reporting unsafe conditions.
47. What is the best way to prevent forklift accidents?
A) Let untrained workers operate them
B) Speed up to save time
C) Ensure only certified operators use them
D) Ignore blind spots
Answer: C) Ensure only certified operators use them
Explanation: OSHA requires formal training for forklift operators.
48. What does HSE stand for?
A) Health, Safety, and Environment
B) Hazardous Safety Equipment
C) High Security Enforcement
D) Human Resources and Safety Executive
Answer: A) Health, Safety, and Environment
Explanation: HSE departments manage workplace safety and environmental compliance.
49. What is the primary goal of incident investigation?
A) Assign blame
B) Prevent recurrence
C) Reduce paperwork
D) Hide evidence
Answer: B) Prevent recurrence
Explanation: Investigations identify root causes to improve safety measures.
50. Which of the following is a psychological hazard?
A) Workplace bullying
B) Wet floors
C) Loud noise
D) Broken tools
Answer: A) Workplace bullying
Explanation: Psychological hazards include stress, harassment, and violence.
Quiz Summary:
- Topics Covered: OSHA, PPE, Fire Safety, Hazard Control, Emergency Response, Ergonomics, and more.
- Difficulty Level: Beginner to Intermediate.
- Use Case: Training, certifications, or safety awareness programs.
