Download Now: 100+ Safety Officer Exam MCQs (Answers & Explanations Included)
Here’s a comprehensive set of 100+ Safety Officer Exam Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with Answers and Explanations. These questions are ideal for preparing for Safety Officer interviews, certification exams like NEBOSH, IOSH, OSHA, or internal company assessments.
1. What is the primary purpose of a risk assessment?
A. To eliminate all workplace hazards
B. To identify hazards and evaluate risks
C. To comply with insurance requirements
D. To train employees
Answer: B
Explanation: A risk assessment helps identify hazards and evaluate their risks to implement control measures effectively.
2. Which of the following is a physical hazard?
A. Noise
B. Bacteria
C. Work stress
D. Chemical spill
Answer: A
Explanation: Physical hazards include noise, radiation, vibration, and extreme temperatures.
3. What does PPE stand for?
A. Professional Protective Equipment
B. Personal Protection Essentials
C. Personal Protective Equipment
D. Physical Protection Equipment
Answer: C
Explanation: PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment, used to minimize exposure to hazards.
4. Which fire extinguisher is suitable for electrical fires?
A. Water
B. Foam
C. Dry powder
D. CO₂
Answer: D
Explanation: CO₂ extinguishers are ideal for electrical fires as they do not conduct electricity.
5. What color is used for safety information signs?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green
Answer: D
Explanation: Green signs provide safety information, like emergency exits and first aid.
6. ISO 45001 is a standard for:
A. Environmental management
B. Quality management
C. Occupational health and safety
D. Fire safety
Answer: C
Explanation: ISO 45001 provides a framework for managing OHS risks.
7. The “Hierarchy of Controls” ranks hazard controls in which order?
A. Elimination, PPE, Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, Substitution
B. PPE, Elimination, Substitution, Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls
C. Elimination, Substitution, Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, PPE
D. Substitution, Elimination, PPE, Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls
Answer: C
Explanation: This hierarchy prioritizes eliminating the hazard first before relying on PPE.
8. What does MSDS stand for?
A. Material Safety Document Sheet
B. Material Safety Data Sheet
C. Mechanical Safety Data Sheet
D. Manual Safety Data Sheet
Answer: B
Explanation: MSDS contains detailed information about chemicals and their hazards.
9. Who is responsible for workplace safety?
A. Safety officer only
B. Employer only
C. Employees only
D. Everyone in the organization
Answer: D
Explanation: Safety is a shared responsibility among employers, safety officers, and employees.
10. A confined space is defined as:
A. A space where people cannot stand
B. A space not designed for continuous occupancy
C. An open space with poor ventilation
D. A space with fire hazards
Answer: B
Explanation: Confined spaces have limited entry and are not meant for regular occupancy.
11. The fire triangle consists of:
A. Water, air, ignition
B. Heat, fuel, oxygen
C. Spark, gas, flame
D. Smoke, heat, CO₂
Answer: B
Explanation: These three elements must be present for fire to occur.
12. Which is the first action in the event of discovering a fire?
A. Try to extinguish it
B. Inform your supervisor
C. Raise the alarm
D. Evacuate immediately
Answer: C
Explanation: Raising the alarm alerts others and initiates the emergency response plan.
13. What type of fire does a Class B extinguisher target?
A. Wood and paper
B. Electrical fires
C. Flammable liquids
D. Cooking oils
Answer: C
Explanation: Class B extinguishers are suitable for flammable liquid fires.
14. Electrical PPE includes all except:
A. Rubber gloves
B. Insulated tools
C. Flame-resistant clothing
D. Steel-toe boots
Answer: D
Explanation: While steel-toe boots offer protection, they are not typically classified under electrical PPE.
15. The best way to prevent electrical shock is to:
A. Wear rubber gloves
B. Turn off the power source before work
C. Use wooden ladders
D. Use insulated tools
Answer: B
Explanation: De-energizing equipment is the safest approach before working on electrical systems.
16. Which of the following is considered a “work at height”?
A. Working above 1.8 meters
B. Working in a trench
C. Working indoors
D. Working on the ground
Answer: A
Explanation: Work at height typically refers to work done above 1.8 meters without edge protection.
17. What is the minimum height for requiring fall protection according to OSHA?
A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet
Answer: C
Explanation: OSHA requires fall protection at 6 feet for general industry.
18. Excavation deeper than 5 feet requires:
A. No special equipment
B. A permit
C. Shoring, shielding, or sloping
D. Scaffolding
Answer: C
Explanation: Excavations deeper than 5 feet must have protective systems to prevent collapse.
19. Which of the following is NOT a lifting hazard?
A. Overloading
B. Improper rigging
C. Wearing PPE
D. Untrained personnel
Answer: C
Explanation: Wearing PPE is a control measure, not a hazard.
20. The primary hazard in welding is:
A. Falling from height
B. Noise
C. Electric shock and arc rays
D. Fire extinguisher malfunction
Answer: C
Explanation: Welding hazards include electric shock, arc rays, and fumes.
21. What is the first step in incident investigation?
A. File a report
B. Find the cause
C. Secure the scene
D. Interview witnesses
Answer: C
Explanation: Securing the scene prevents further injuries and preserves evidence.
22. Near misses should be reported because:
A. They are legally required
B. They help prevent future incidents
C. They are signs of employee laziness
D. They reduce insurance costs
Answer: B
Explanation: Near misses highlight risks and help in proactive hazard control.
23. What is the purpose of a root cause analysis?
A. Assign blame
B. Reduce documentation
C. Identify fundamental reasons for an incident
D. Save money
Answer: C
Explanation: Root cause analysis helps to identify and eliminate underlying causes.
24. Which tool is commonly used in root cause analysis?
A. Hammer
B. Five Whys
C. MSDS
D. PPE
Answer: B
Explanation: “Five Whys” helps drill down to the true cause of an issue.
25. Which of the following is considered an incident?
A. A scheduled meeting
B. An equipment upgrade
C. A slip without injury
D. A new hire
Answer: C
Explanation: A slip, even without injury, is an incident and should be reported.
26. What does GHS stand for?
A. General Hazard Sheet
B. Globally Harmonized System
C. Government Health Standard
D. Gas Hazard System
Answer: B
Explanation: GHS standardizes chemical labeling and hazard communication globally.
27. A red diamond on a chemical label usually indicates:
A. Flammability hazard
B. Health hazard
C. Environmental hazard
D. Radiation hazard
Answer: A
Explanation: In GHS labeling, red diamonds indicate specific types of hazards like flammability.
28. What should be done if a chemical spill occurs?
A. Clean it immediately
B. Call a supervisor and follow spill procedures
C. Ignore it
D. Move to another workstation
Answer: B
Explanation: All chemical spills should be reported and handled as per procedure.
29. Where can you find information about chemical hazards and PPE?
A. Fire logbook
B. First aid kit
C. Safety data sheet (SDS)
D. Company handbook
Answer: C
Explanation: SDS provides complete chemical safety and PPE guidelines.
30. What is the main route of entry for chemical exposure?
A. Vision
B. Digestion
C. Inhalation
D. Touching
Answer: C
Explanation: Inhalation is a common route of exposure, especially in the workplace.
31. What does a Safety Management System (SMS) aim to do?
A. Replace HR policies
B. Eliminate training
C. Provide a structured approach to safety
D. Make PPE optional
Answer: C
Explanation: SMS helps organizations manage risks and ensure continuous improvement.
32. Leading indicators in safety are:
A. Used to measure past incidents
B. Always inaccurate
C. Predictive and proactive measures
D. Unreliable metrics
Answer: C
Explanation: Leading indicators help predict and prevent incidents.
33. A lagging indicator of safety performance is:
A. Training hours completed
B. PPE issued
C. Number of injuries
D. Safety meetings held
Answer: C
Explanation: Lagging indicators measure historical performance (e.g., incident rates).
34. A toolbox talk should be:
A. Done monthly
B. Done only when accidents happen
C. Short, focused, and regular
D. Held once a year
Answer: C
Explanation: Toolbox talks are brief safety meetings focused on specific topics.
35. Which of the following is an example of a proactive safety activity?
A. Accident investigation
B. Equipment repair after failure
C. Safety audits
D. Injury rate calculation
Answer: C
Explanation: Safety audits identify issues before incidents happen.
36. What color is used for prohibition signs?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow
Answer: C
Explanation: Red is used to indicate prohibited actions (e.g., No smoking).
37. A yellow triangle with a black border usually indicates:
A. Safety instruction
B. Mandatory action
C. Hazard or warning
D. Fire exit
Answer: C
Explanation: Yellow triangles are warning signs (e.g., high voltage, slippery floor).
38. A blue circle sign usually means:
A. Caution
B. Mandatory action
C. No entry
D. Flammable
Answer: B
Explanation: Blue circles indicate mandatory actions like “Wear helmet.”
39. Green safety signs are related to:
A. Hazard warnings
B. Prohibition
C. Fire equipment
D. Emergency routes and first aid
Answer: D
Explanation: Green signs provide emergency information and indicate safe conditions.
40. A fire extinguisher location sign is typically:
A. Blue
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Red
Answer: D
Explanation: Red signs are used for fire safety and fire-fighting equipment.
41. What is the first step in providing first aid?
A. Call for help
B. Diagnose injuries
C. Assess the situation for danger
D. Apply bandage
Answer: C
Explanation: Ensure the scene is safe before providing first aid.
42. In case of electric shock, what should you do first?
A. Pull the person immediately
B. Pour water
C. Turn off the power supply
D. Apply CPR
Answer: C
Explanation: Always disconnect the power source before touching the victim.
43. CPR stands for:
A. Cardiovascular Pressure Recovery
B. Complete Pulse Restoration
C. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
D. Chest Pump Revival
Answer: C
Explanation: CPR is a lifesaving technique used in cardiac emergencies.
44. The emergency number for fire in most countries is:
A. 111
B. 999
C. 112
D. 911
Answer: D
Explanation: 911 is the universal emergency number in North America. In Europe, it is 112.
45. First aid for minor burns includes:
A. Applying ice directly
B. Rubbing oil
C. Cooling with water
D. Covering with cotton
Answer: C
Explanation: Cool the burn with running water for 10–20 minutes.
46. Which of the following is a characteristic of a confined space?
A. Unlimited access and ventilation
B. Designed for continuous occupancy
C. Limited entry and exit
D. Always underground
Answer: C
Explanation: Confined spaces are not designed for continuous occupancy and have limited access.
47. Before entering a confined space, it is mandatory to:
A. Finish lunch
B. Take a selfie
C. Test the atmosphere
D. Remove all PPE
Answer: C
Explanation: The air must be tested for oxygen levels and hazardous gases.
48. The minimum oxygen level for safe entry into a confined space is:
A. 18.5%
B. 19.5%
C. 21%
D. 22%
Answer: B
Explanation: OSHA requires a minimum of 19.5% oxygen for safe entry.
49. Which gas is heavier than air and may accumulate in confined spaces?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen
Answer: C
Explanation: CO₂ is heavier than air and can displace oxygen in confined spaces.
50. A confined space permit is valid for:
A. 24 hours
B. 8 hours or job-specific
C. 1 week
D. Indefinitely
Answer: B
Explanation: Permits are job-specific and usually valid for a shift unless conditions change.
51. Fall protection is required at what height in general industry (OSHA standard)?
A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet
Answer: B
Explanation: OSHA requires fall protection at 4 feet in general industry.
52. What is the most effective method for fall protection?
A. Safety net
B. Personal fall arrest system
C. Guardrails
D. Warning signs
Answer: C
Explanation: Guardrails are an engineering control and preferred over PPE.
53. What is the maximum free fall distance allowed in a fall arrest system?
A. 1 meter
B. 3.5 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 8 feet
Answer: C
Explanation: OSHA limits free fall distance to 6 feet to reduce injury risk.
54. Before using a safety harness, you must:
A. Paint it
B. Wash it
C. Inspect it
D. Replace it every 6 months
Answer: C
Explanation: Inspection ensures the harness is in safe working condition.
55. Lanyards should be attached to:
A. The worker’s leg
B. A movable platform
C. An anchor point
D. Their tool belt
Answer: C
Explanation: The anchor point must be strong enough to hold in case of a fall.
56. The primary purpose of machine guarding is to:
A. Make the machine look better
B. Reduce vibration
C. Protect the operator
D. Cool the machine
Answer: C
Explanation: Guards prevent contact with moving parts.
57. Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) procedures are used to:
A. Track employees
B. Secure hazardous energy sources
C. Lock toolboxes
D. Prevent theft
Answer: B
Explanation: LOTO isolates energy before maintenance work is performed.
58. Which is NOT a type of hazardous energy?
A. Electrical
B. Hydraulic
C. Pneumatic
D. Radio waves
Answer: D
Explanation: Radio waves are not typically considered hazardous energy in LOTO.
59. Only ________ personnel may remove a lockout device.
A. The maintenance supervisor
B. Authorized personnel who placed it
C. Security
D. Safety officer
Answer: B
Explanation: Only the person who applied the lock can remove it, for safety.
60. What color is commonly used for safety guards?
A. Blue
B. Yellow
C. Black
D. Red
Answer: B
Explanation: Yellow indicates caution and is used for physical hazards.
61. What should be done before excavation begins?
A. Start digging
B. Paint the area
C. Identify underground utilities
D. Place cones randomly
Answer: C
Explanation: Utility lines must be located and marked to prevent accidents.
62. What is the safe slope for a trench 6 feet deep in Type C soil?
A. 45°
B. 34°
C. 25°
D. 18°
Answer: B
Explanation: According to OSHA, Type C soil requires a slope of 34° (1.5:1).
63. Scaffold platforms must be at least how wide?
A. 10 inches
B. 18 inches
C. 24 inches
D. 36 inches
Answer: B
Explanation: Minimum platform width is 18 inches per OSHA.
64. A competent person is responsible for:
A. Painting equipment
B. Site housekeeping
C. Scaffold inspection
D. Project budgeting
Answer: C
Explanation: A competent person must inspect scaffolds before each work shift.
65. What is the primary hazard with power tools?
A. Dust
B. Noise
C. Moving parts
D. Color
Answer: C
Explanation: Rotating and moving parts can cause serious injuries.
66. The hierarchy of control begins with:
A. PPE
B. Engineering control
C. Elimination
D. Substitution
Answer: C
Explanation: Elimination of the hazard is the most effective control.
67. In a risk matrix, high severity and high likelihood means:
A. Acceptable risk
B. Medium risk
C. Very low risk
D. Intolerable risk
Answer: D
Explanation: This combination represents the highest level of risk.
68. How is risk calculated?
A. Risk = Loss ÷ Time
B. Risk = Severity + Likelihood
C. Risk = Severity × Likelihood
D. Risk = Incident ÷ Exposure
Answer: C
Explanation: Risk is generally calculated as Severity × Likelihood.
69. One of OSHA’s core values is:
A. Profit maximization
B. Ignoring small hazards
C. Protecting worker safety
D. Encouraging shortcuts
Answer: C
Explanation: OSHA’s mission is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions.
70. The main purpose of NEBOSH is to:
A. Hire workers
B. Provide safety certifications
C. Sell PPE
D. Monitor air quality
Answer: B
Explanation: NEBOSH provides globally recognized safety qualifications.
71. What is an unsafe act?
A. Faulty equipment
B. Poor weather conditions
C. Unsafe worker behavior
D. Broken machinery
Answer: C
Explanation: An unsafe act is any human action that deviates from standard safety procedures and can lead to an accident.
72. What are the elements of the fire triangle?
A. Smoke, Oxygen, Water
B. Oxygen, Fuel, Heat
C. Heat, Water, Electricity
D. Flame, Air, Smoke
Answer: B
Explanation: Fire requires oxygen, fuel, and heat – the three elements of the fire triangle.
73. A common cause of scaffold collapse is:
A. Loose bolts
B. Strong wind
C. Overloading
D. Bright sunlight
Answer: C
Explanation: Overloading scaffolds beyond their rated capacity is a primary cause of collapse.
74. JSA stands for:
A. Job Safety Assignment
B. Job Schedule Assessment
C. Job Safety Analysis
D. Joint Safety Association
Answer: C
Explanation: JSA (Job Safety Analysis) is a tool to identify and control job-related hazards.
75. What is the color of a mandatory safety sign?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow
Answer: B
Explanation: Blue signs indicate a mandatory action such as “Wear PPE.”
76. HAZOP is used for:
A. Environmental assessment
B. Noise analysis
C. Process hazard analysis
D. Fire response planning
Answer: C
Explanation: HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study) is used in analyzing process systems.
77. A hot work permit is needed for:
A. Confined space entry
B. Painting
C. Welding and cutting
D. Excavation
Answer: C
Explanation: Hot work involves open flames or sparks, such as in welding, and requires a special permit.
78. What is the most common cause of industrial fires?
A. Overheating machines
B. Poor lighting
C. Electrical faults
D. Wet floors
Answer: C
Explanation: Faulty or overloaded electrical systems are a leading cause of industrial fires.
79. Safety shoes are used to protect against:
A. Slips
B. Loud noise
C. Sharp tools
D. Falling objects
Answer: D
Explanation: Safety shoes with steel toe caps protect against injuries from falling or rolling objects.
80. According to OSHA, noise becomes hazardous at:
A. 70 dB
B. 85 dB
C. 90 dB
D. 95 dB
Answer: B
Explanation: Prolonged exposure to noise levels above 85 decibels requires hearing protection.
81. PPE stands for:
A. Public Protection Equipment
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Primary Protective Element
D. Professional Protection Essentials
Answer: B
Explanation: PPE is gear worn to minimize exposure to hazards.
82. Which extinguisher is used for electrical fires?
A. Foam
B. Water
C. Dry powder
D. CO₂
Answer: D
Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) extinguishers are safe and effective for electrical fires.
83. Tools should be inspected:
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. After each job
D. Before every use
Answer: D
Explanation: Pre-use inspections help detect defects and prevent accidents.
84. Confined space rescue should only be attempted by:
A. Firefighters
B. Management
C. Trained personnel
D. Anyone nearby
Answer: C
Explanation: Only trained and equipped personnel should perform confined space rescues.
85. Electrical panels should be:
A. Left open
B. Painted red
C. Kept locked and labeled
D. Covered with plastic
Answer: C
Explanation: Locking and labeling prevent unauthorized access and electrical hazards.
86. Accident frequency rate is measured by:
A. Accidents per year
B. Number of workers injured
C. Accidents per 1 million man-hours
D. Cost of accidents
Answer: C
Explanation: It’s calculated as (No. of accidents × 1,000,000) ÷ total man-hours worked.
87. Hazard identification is part of:
A. Toolbox talk
B. Risk assessment
C. Safety meeting
D. First aid
Answer: B
Explanation: Identifying hazards is the first step in a proper risk assessment.
88. Emergency evacuation drills should be conducted:
A. Annually
B. Every 2 years
C. Monthly or as needed
D. When an incident occurs
Answer: C
Explanation: Regular drills ensure readiness in real emergencies.
89. What is the correct way to lift a load?
A. Bend at the waist
B. Use your back muscles
C. Bend your knees and keep your back straight
D. Hold the load away from your body
Answer: C
Explanation: Proper lifting technique reduces the risk of back injury.
90. First aid boxes must be:
A. Locked
B. Stored in the manager’s office
C. Clearly marked and accessible
D. Hidden for security
Answer: C
Explanation: Accessibility and visibility are essential for quick response.
91. MSDS is now called:
A. Safety Record
B. Work Sheet
C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
D. Equipment Log
Answer: C
Explanation: The new term “SDS” is used globally under the GHS system.
92. A safety audit is conducted to:
A. Promote company image
B. Evaluate safety procedures
C. Entertain workers
D. Increase production
Answer: B
Explanation: Safety audits assess the effectiveness of health and safety systems.
93. Fire extinguishers should be inspected:
A. Once in 2 years
B. Every 6 months
C. Monthly
D. Only after a fire
Answer: C
Explanation: OSHA and NFPA recommend monthly checks.
94. Safety culture refers to:
A. Cultural events at the workplace
B. Organizational focus on safety values
C. Safety slogans
D. PPE brands used
Answer: B
Explanation: A strong safety culture promotes safe behavior at all levels.
95. Which of the following is an unsafe condition?
A. Clear exit routes
B. Clean floors
C. Poor lighting
D. Adequate signage
Answer: C
Explanation: Poor lighting can lead to trips and falls.
96. Fall protection systems include:
A. Floor mats
B. Hard hats
C. Guardrails and harnesses
D. High-visibility vests
Answer: C
Explanation: These are standard fall protection measures per OSHA.
97. An accident is defined as:
A. An intentional act
B. A lucky event
C. An unplanned event causing injury or damage
D. A security threat
Answer: C
Explanation: Accidents are unintended incidents that result in harm.
98. A chemical label must include:
A. Barcode only
B. Name of supplier only
C. Hazard pictogram and signal word
D. Slogan
Answer: C
Explanation: Labels must follow GHS guidelines with pictograms, signal words, etc.
99. Effective safety training must be:
A. Entertaining
B. Theoretical only
C. Job-specific and practical
D. Once in a career
Answer: C
Explanation: Relevance to the job ensures better understanding and compliance.
100. A fire assembly point is:
A. A place to fight fire
B. Where fire extinguishers are kept
C. Designated emergency gathering area
D. Parking lot
Answer: C
Explanation: Fire assembly points are where people gather after evacuation.
