Safety Engineer Quiz – 50 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
1. What is the primary goal of a safety engineer?
A) Increase production speed
B) Minimize workplace hazards and risks ✅
C) Reduce employee salaries
D) Improve marketing strategies
Explanation: Safety engineers focus on identifying and mitigating workplace hazards to protect workers and ensure compliance with safety regulations.
2. Which regulatory body oversees workplace safety in the United States?
A) FDA
B) OSHA ✅
C) EPA
D) FAA
Explanation: OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is responsible for enforcing workplace safety standards in the U.S.
3. What does PPE stand for?
A) Personal Production Equipment
B) Protective Personnel Equipment
C) Personal Protective Equipment ✅
D) Professional Protective Ensemble
Explanation: PPE refers to gear worn to minimize exposure to hazards (e.g., helmets, gloves, masks).
4. Which of the following is an example of an engineering control?
A) Safety training
B) Warning signs
C) Ventilation systems ✅
D) First aid kits
Explanation: Engineering controls physically reduce hazards (e.g., ventilation removes airborne contaminants).
5. What is the first step in risk assessment?
A) Implement controls
B) Identify hazards ✅
C) Train employees
D) Document findings
Explanation: Hazard identification is the foundation of risk assessment before mitigation strategies are applied.
6. Which fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C ✅
D) Class D
Explanation: Class C extinguishers are designed for electrical fires, as they use non-conductive agents.
7. What is the permissible exposure limit (PEL) for noise over an 8-hour workday?
A) 65 dB
B) 85 dB
C) 90 dB ✅
D) 100 dB
Explanation: OSHA’s PEL for noise is 90 dB; exposure above this requires hearing protection.
8. What does “LOTO” stand for in safety procedures?
A) Lock Out/Tag Out ✅
B) Load Over/Turn Off
C) Lift Over/Transfer Out
D) Low Oxygen/Toxic Output
Explanation: LOTO ensures equipment is de-energized during maintenance to prevent accidental startups.
9. Which chemical is commonly associated with asphyxiation in confined spaces?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen ✅
C) Helium
D) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Nitrogen can displace oxygen in confined spaces, leading to asphyxiation.
10. What is the purpose of a Job Safety Analysis (JSA)?
A) Increase productivity
B) Identify task-specific hazards and controls ✅
C) Replace OSHA inspections
D) Reduce employee breaks
Explanation: JSA breaks down job tasks to pinpoint hazards and implement preventive measures.
11. Which of the following is NOT a root cause analysis method?
A) 5 Whys
B) Fishbone Diagram
C) SWOT Analysis ✅
D) Fault Tree Analysis
Explanation: SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is a strategic tool, not a root cause analysis method.
12. What color are safety warning signs typically?
A) Blue
B) Red
C) Yellow ✅
D) Green
Explanation: Yellow indicates caution/warning (e.g., “Slippery Floor”).
13. What is the leading cause of workplace fatalities in construction?
A) Electrical hazards
B) Struck-by objects
C) Falls ✅
D) Chemical exposure
Explanation: Falls (e.g., from heights) account for the highest number of construction-related deaths (OSHA “Fatal Four”).
14. Which ergonomic hazard is associated with repetitive motions?
A) Heat stress
B) Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) ✅
C) Noise-induced hearing loss
D) Radiation exposure
Explanation: Repetitive tasks can lead to MSDs like carpal tunnel syndrome.
15. What does SDS stand for in chemical safety?
A) Safety Data Sheet ✅
B) Secure Danger Standard
C) Substance Detection System
D) Standard Dilution Solution
Explanation: SDS provides details on chemical hazards, handling, and emergency measures.
16. Which class of fire involves flammable metals?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D ✅
Explanation: Class D fires involve metals like magnesium or sodium (requiring specialized extinguishers).
17. What is the minimum safe distance from an unprotected trench edge?
A) 1 foot
B) 2 feet ✅
C) 5 feet
D) 10 feet
Explanation: OSHA requires a 2-foot buffer to prevent cave-in injuries.
18. Which respirator type provides the highest protection level?
A) N95 mask
B) Half-face elastomeric
C) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) ✅
D) Surgical mask
Explanation: PAPRs filter contaminants while supplying clean air, ideal for high-exposure environments.
19. What is the purpose of a “confined space permit”?
A) Speed up entry procedures
B) Document hazards and safety measures ✅
C) Replace PPE requirements
D) Allow unlimited worker access
Explanation: The permit ensures hazards (e.g., toxic gases) are controlled before entry.
20. Which organization sets international safety standards (e.g., ISO 45001)?
A) OSHA
B) NIOSH
C) International Labour Organization (ILO)
D) International Organization for Standardization (ISO) ✅
Explanation: ISO develops global standards like ISO 45001 for occupational health and safety.
21. What is the “Hierarchy of Controls” order (most to least effective)?
A) PPE → Administrative → Engineering → Elimination
B) Elimination → Substitution → Engineering → Administrative → PPE ✅
C) Training → Warning signs → PPE → Substitution
D) Administrative → PPE → Isolation → Elimination
Explanation: Elimination (removing the hazard) is most effective; PPE is the last line of defense.
22. Which tool is used to assess electrical circuit safety?
A) Anemometer
B) Ohmmeter ✅
C) Barometer
D) Hygrometer
Explanation: Ohmmeters measure electrical resistance to detect faults.
23. What is the primary hazard of hydrogen sulfide (H₂S)?
A) Fire risk
B) Corrosive burns
C) Asphyxiation and toxicity ✅
D) Radiation emission
Explanation: H₂S is a toxic gas that can cause respiratory failure at low concentrations.
24. Which OSHA standard covers hazardous energy control (LOTO)?
A) 1910.120
B) 1910.147 ✅
C) 1910.134
D) 1910.95
Explanation: 29 CFR 1910.147 outlines LOTO procedures for equipment safety.
25. What is the “STEL” for a chemical substance?
A) Safe Training and Emergency Limit
B) Short-Term Exposure Limit ✅
C) Standard Toxic Emission Level
D) Systematic Technical Evaluation Log
Explanation: STEL is the maximum exposure allowed for 15 minutes without harm.
26. Which factor does NOT contribute to workplace slips/trips/falls?
A) Wet floors
B) Poor lighting
C) Cluttered walkways
D) High salaries ✅
Explanation: Environmental hazards—not employee pay—cause slips/trips/falls.
27. What is the purpose of a “near-miss” report?
A) Assign blame to employees
B) Identify and prevent future incidents ✅
C) Replace OSHA recordkeeping
D) Reduce worker compensation claims
Explanation: Near-miss analysis helps proactively address hazards before injuries occur.
28. Which PPE is required for welding operations?
A) Hard hat
B) Flame-resistant gloves and helmet ✅
C) Latex gloves
D) Safety glasses only
Explanation: Welding exposes workers to UV radiation, sparks, and heat, requiring specialized PPE.
29. What does “TLV” stand for in industrial hygiene?
A) Toxic Limit Value
B) Threshold Limit Value ✅
C) Total Lung Volume
D) Time-Limited Ventilation
Explanation: TLV is the maximum airborne concentration safe for daily exposure (ACGIH standard).
30. Which fire extinguishing agent is unsuitable for Class K fires (cooking oils)?
A) Water ✅
B) Wet chemical
C) CO₂
D) Foam
Explanation: Water spreads grease fires; Class K requires wet chemical agents.
31. What is the primary purpose of machine guarding?
A) Increase production speed
B) Prevent contact with moving parts ✅
C) Reduce equipment maintenance costs
D) Improve product quality
Explanation: Machine guards protect workers from amputations, crush injuries, and entanglement hazards.
32. Which element is NOT required in an Emergency Action Plan (EAP)?
A) Evacuation routes
B) Employee social security numbers ✅
C) Reporting procedures for emergencies
D) Roles of designated responders
Explanation: EAPs focus on emergency protocols, not personal employee data (OSHA 1910.38).
33. Which biological hazard requires airborne precautions?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Tuberculosis (TB) ✅
C) HIV
D) Tetanus
Explanation: TB spreads via airborne droplets, requiring N95 respirators and isolation controls.
34. What is the key indicator of a strong safety culture?
A) High disciplinary actions
B) Employee participation in safety programs ✅
C) Minimal safety training
D) Focus only on regulatory compliance
Explanation: Proactive employee engagement reflects commitment to safety beyond minimum requirements.
35. Under HazCom (Hazard Communication Standard), what must chemical labels include?
A) Product price
B) Signal word, pictograms, and hazard statements ✅
C) Manufacturer’s profit margin
D) Employee shift schedules
Explanation: OSHA’s HazCom 2012 aligns with GHS (Globally Harmonized System) labeling requirements.
36. What is the minimum breaking strength required for a fall arrest lanyard?
A) 1,000 pounds
B) 3,000 pounds
C) 5,000 pounds ✅
D) 10,000 pounds
Explanation: ANSI Z359.1 mandates 5,000 lbs to withstand forces during a fall.
37. Which device measures workplace noise levels?
A) Psychrometer
B) Sound level meter ✅
C) Gas chromatograph
D) Lux meter
Explanation: Sound level meters quantify decibel (dB) exposure for hearing conservation programs.
38. What is the purpose of Process Safety Management (PSM)?
A) Reduce office paperwork
B) Prevent catastrophic chemical releases ✅
C) Speed up production timelines
D) Replace PPE requirements
Explanation: PSM (OSHA 1910.119) applies to industries handling highly hazardous chemicals.
39. Which type of radiation requires lead shielding for protection?
A) Ultraviolet (UV)
B) Gamma rays ✅
C) Infrared
D) Microwave
Explanation: Gamma rays are ionizing radiation; lead absorbs their high-energy photons.
40. Which EPA regulation governs hazardous waste disposal?
A) Clean Air Act
B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) ✅
C) Safe Drinking Water Act
D) Toxic Substances Control Act
Explanation: RCRA tracks hazardous waste “cradle-to-grave” (generation to disposal).
41. What is the maximum allowable scaffold platform gap?
A) 1 inch ✅
B) 3 inches
C) 6 inches
D) No limit
Explanation: OSHA 1926.451 permits ≤1″ gaps to prevent tools/materials from falling.
42. Which NFPA diamond color indicates health hazards?
A) Red
B) Blue ✅
C) Yellow
D) White
Explanation: NFPA 704 uses blue for health, red for flammability, yellow for reactivity.
43. What is the primary risk of benzene exposure?
A) Skin irritation
B) Leukemia (cancer) ✅
C) Hearing loss
D) Broken bones
Explanation: Benzene is a carcinogen linked to blood disorders (OSHA PEL: 1 ppm).
44. Which safety system is designed to stop falls within 6 feet?
A) Guardrails
B) Safety nets
C) Personal fall arrest system
D) Positioning device system ✅
Explanation: Positioning systems (e.g., window washers) restrict falls to ≤6 ft per OSHA 1926.500.
45. What is the “ALARA” principle in radiation safety?
A) As Low As Reasonably Achievable ✅
B) Always Leave Area Rapidly After
C) Avoid Light and Radiation Areas
D) Assign Large Accountability to Radiation Authorities
Explanation: ALARA minimizes radiation exposure through engineering, time, and distance controls.
46. Which OSHA standard covers bloodborne pathogens?
A) 1910.95
B) 1910.120
C) 1910.1030 ✅
D) 1910.146
Explanation: 29 CFR 1910.1030 protects workers from diseases like HIV/Hepatitis B/C.
47. What is the primary hazard of silica dust?
A) Explosion risk
B) Silicosis (lung disease) ✅
C) Skin burns
D) Electrical shock
Explanation: Crystalline silica causes irreversible lung scarring (OSHA PEL: 50 µg/m³).
48. Which EPA program regulates chemical spills into waterways?
A) CERCLA (Superfund)
B) SPCC (Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure) ✅
C) FIFRA
D) NEPA
Explanation: SPCC targets oil/chemical spill prevention at facilities near water sources.
49. What is the minimum required anchorage strength for fall protection?
A) 2,000 lbs per worker
B) 3,000 lbs per worker
C) 5,000 lbs per worker ✅
D) 10,000 lbs per worker
Explanation: OSHA 1926.502 requires 5,000 lbs (or 2x intended force) for anchor points.
50. Which term describes a systematic review of workplace safety policies?
A) Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
B) Safety Audit ✅
C) Toolbox Talk
D) Near-Miss Investigation
Explanation: Safety audits evaluate compliance, identify gaps, and recommend improvements.
