NEBOSH Safety Quiz
Below are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on NEBOSH safety standards, along with correct answers and detailed explanations.
Question 1
What is the primary purpose of a risk assessment?
A) To eliminate all workplace hazards
B) To identify hazards and implement control measures
C) To reduce insurance costs
D) To comply with legal requirements only
Correct Answer: B) To identify hazards and implement control measures
Explanation: The main goal of a risk assessment is to recognize potential hazards and determine appropriate control measures to reduce risks, not necessarily to eliminate all hazards completely.
Question 2
Which of the following is an example of a physical hazard?
A) Workplace stress
B) Exposure to asbestos
C) Slippery floors
D) Bullying at work
Correct Answer: C) Slippery floors
Explanation: Physical hazards are environmental factors that can cause harm, such as wet floors, noise, or extreme temperatures.
Question 3
What does the acronym “COSHH” stand for?
A) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
B) Chemical Occupational Safety and Health Hazards
C) Compliance of Safe Handling of Hazards
D) Control of Safety and Hazardous Handling
Correct Answer: A) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
Explanation: COSHH is a UK regulation that requires employers to control exposure to hazardous substances.
Question 4
Which of the following is a key element of a health and safety management system?
A) Profit maximization
B) Policy, planning, implementation, and review
C) Employee bonuses
D) Advertising safety records
Correct Answer: B) Policy, planning, implementation, and review
Explanation: A health and safety management system follows the PDCA (Plan-Do-Check-Act) cycle, which includes policy, planning, implementation, and review.
Question 5
What is the first step in the hierarchy of risk control?
A) Personal protective equipment (PPE)
B) Elimination of the hazard
C) Administrative controls
D) Substitution
Correct Answer: B) Elimination of the hazard
Explanation: The hierarchy of controls prioritizes eliminating the hazard first, followed by substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE as a last resort.
Question 6
What is the main purpose of a safety inspection?
A) To discipline employees
B) To identify unsafe conditions and practices
C) To increase production speed
D) To reduce paperwork
Correct Answer: B) To identify unsafe conditions and practices
Explanation: Safety inspections help detect hazards and unsafe behaviors before they lead to incidents.
Question 7
Which legislation requires employers to provide a safe working environment?
A) The Environmental Protection Act
B) The Health and Safety at Work Act (HSWA) 1974
C) The Equality Act
D) The Data Protection Act
Correct Answer: B) The Health and Safety at Work Act (HSWA) 1974
Explanation: HSWA 1974 is the primary UK legislation ensuring workplace health and safety.
Question 8
What is the role of a safety representative?
A) To enforce disciplinary actions
B) To represent employees’ safety concerns to management
C) To reduce company costs
D) To conduct financial audits
Correct Answer: B) To represent employees’ safety concerns to management
Explanation: Safety representatives act as a bridge between workers and management regarding health and safety issues.
Question 9
What is the most effective way to prevent falls from height?
A) Providing harnesses
B) Avoiding work at height where possible
C) Increasing worker training
D) Using warning signs
Correct Answer: B) Avoiding work at height where possible
Explanation: Elimination (avoiding the hazard) is the most effective control measure under the hierarchy of risk control.
Question 10
What does RIDDOR stand for?
A) Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations
B) Risk Identification and Dangerous Occurrences Report
C) Record of Incidents, Diseases and Direct Occupational Risks
D) Regulation of Industrial Diseases and Dangerous Operations
Correct Answer: A) Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations
Explanation: RIDDOR requires employers to report serious workplace accidents and incidents.
Question 11
What is the primary purpose of a Permit-to-Work (PTW) system?
A) To authorize overtime work
B) To ensure high-risk tasks are controlled safely
C) To track employee attendance
D) To increase productivity
Correct Answer: B) To ensure high-risk tasks are controlled safely
Explanation: A PTW system is a formal procedure to authorize and manage hazardous work (e.g., confined space entry, hot work) safely.
Question 12
Which of the following is NOT a common fire prevention measure?
A) Good housekeeping
B) Storing flammable materials safely
C) Blocking fire exits for security
D) Installing smoke detectors
Correct Answer: C) Blocking fire exits for security
Explanation: Fire exits must always remain unobstructed to allow safe evacuation in emergencies.
Question 13
What is the minimum number of people required for safe entry into a confined space?
A) 1 (the worker)
B) 2 (worker + standby person)
C) 3 (worker + standby + supervisor)
D) 4 (worker + standby + supervisor + medic)
Correct Answer: C) 3 (worker + standby + supervisor)
Explanation: Confined space entry typically requires at least three people: one entrant, one standby rescuer, and one supervisor monitoring safety.
Question 14
What does the term “ergonomics” refer to?
A) Workplace temperature control
B) Designing tasks to fit the worker’s capabilities
C) Emergency evacuation planning
D) Fire safety equipment
Correct Answer: B) Designing tasks to fit the worker’s capabilities
Explanation: Ergonomics focuses on reducing physical strain by optimizing workstations, tools, and processes for human comfort and efficiency.
Question 15
Which of the following is a reactive monitoring method?
A) Safety audits
B) Incident investigations
C) Risk assessments
D) Toolbox talks
Correct Answer: B) Incident investigations
Explanation: Reactive monitoring occurs after an incident (e.g., accidents, near-misses) to determine causes and prevent recurrence.
Question 16
What is the main hazard associated with manual handling?
A) Electric shock
B) Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs)
C) Chemical burns
D) Noise-induced hearing loss
Correct Answer: B) Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs)
Explanation: Poor manual handling techniques can lead to back injuries, strains, and long-term MSDs.
Question 17
When should a fire drill be conducted?
A) Only during office hours
B) At random intervals to test preparedness
C) Only when new employees join
D) Once every five years
Correct Answer: B) At random intervals to test preparedness
Explanation: Regular, unannounced fire drills ensure employees know evacuation procedures in real-world conditions.
Question 18
What is the primary cause of most workplace accidents?
A) Equipment failure
B) Human error
C) Natural disasters
D) Government regulations
Correct Answer: B) Human error
Explanation: Studies show that unsafe acts (e.g., shortcuts, lack of training) contribute to most workplace incidents.
Question 19
Which regulation requires employers to assess noise risks?
A) The Noise at Work Regulations
B) The Environmental Protection Act
C) The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations
D) The Manual Handling Operations Regulations
Correct Answer: A) The Noise at Work Regulations
Explanation: These regulations mandate noise risk assessments and hearing protection if exposure exceeds 80 dB(A).
Question 20
What is the purpose of a safety data sheet (SDS)?
A) To list a chemical’s hazards and safe handling measures
B) To track employee attendance
C) To record financial transactions
D) To schedule maintenance work
Correct Answer: A) To list a chemical’s hazards and safe handling measures
Explanation: SDSs provide critical information on chemical properties, risks, PPE, and emergency procedures.
Question 21
What is the most effective control measure for reducing dust exposure?
A) Providing disposable masks
B) Local exhaust ventilation (LEV)
C) Increasing natural lighting
D) Job rotation
Correct Answer: B) Local exhaust ventilation (LEV)
Explanation: LEV systems capture dust at the source, making them more effective than PPE (masks) or administrative controls (job rotation).
Question 22
Under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations, what must employers do regarding risk assessments?
A) Conduct them only after an accident
B) Ensure they are “suitable and sufficient”
C) Delegate them entirely to employees
D) Update them every 10 years
Correct Answer: B) Ensure they are “suitable and sufficient”
Explanation: Risk assessments must be thorough, addressing real workplace hazards, and reviewed regularly (not just after incidents).
Question 23
Which of the following is a legal duty of employees under HSWA 1974?
A) Take reasonable care of their own and others’ safety
B) Pay for their own PPE
C) Conduct risk assessments
D) Supervise colleagues
Correct Answer: A) Take reasonable care of their own and others’ safety
Explanation: Employees must cooperate with safety measures and avoid endangering themselves or others.
Question 24
What is the primary hazard of working with vibrating tools?
A) Skin irritation
B) Hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS)
C) Electric shock
D) Heat stress
Correct Answer: B) Hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS)
Explanation: Prolonged use of vibrating tools can cause HAVS, leading to nerve damage and reduced dexterity.
Question 25
When must a fire risk assessment be reviewed?
A) Only if the building changes ownership
B) After any significant change (e.g., new equipment, layout)
C) Every 20 years
D) Only after a fire occurs
Correct Answer: B) After any significant change (e.g., new equipment, layout)
Explanation: Fire risk assessments must be updated whenever workplace changes could affect fire hazards or evacuation routes.
Question 26
What is the purpose of a “dynamic risk assessment”?
A) To replace formal risk assessments
B) To adapt controls in changing environments (e.g., emergency response)
C) To reduce paperwork
D) To calculate insurance costs
Correct Answer: B) To adapt controls in changing environments (e.g., emergency response)
Explanation: Dynamic assessments allow workers to adjust safety measures in real-time for unpredictable situations.
Question 27
Which type of fire extinguisher is NOT suitable for electrical fires?
A) CO₂
B) Water
C) Dry powder
D) Foam
Correct Answer: B) Water
Explanation: Water conducts electricity and can worsen electrical fires. CO₂ or dry powder extinguishers are safer.
Question 28
What is the key benefit of a “near-miss” reporting system?
A) To assign blame for incidents
B) To identify hazards before they cause harm
C) To reduce the number of safety inspections
D) To eliminate the need for PPE
Correct Answer: B) To identify hazards before they cause harm
Explanation: Near-miss reports help proactively address risks without waiting for an actual injury.
Question 29
Which regulation specifically addresses workplace first aid?
A) The Health and Safety (First Aid) Regulations 1981
B) The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015
C) The Control of Asbestos Regulations 2012
D) The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations (PUWER)
Correct Answer: A) The Health and Safety (First Aid) Regulations 1981
Explanation: These regulations require employers to provide adequate first aid equipment, facilities, and trained personnel.
Question 30
What is the safest way to handle a chemical spill?
A) Ignore it if it’s small
B) Use absorbent materials and follow SDS procedures
C) Wash it away with water
D) Cover it with a rug
Correct Answer: B) Use absorbent materials and follow SDS procedures
Explanation: SDS provides spill cleanup guidelines, and absorbents (e.g., spill kits) prevent chemical spread. Water can react with some substances.
Question 31
What is the primary purpose of a “lockout/tagout” (LOTO) system?
A) To label defective equipment
B) To prevent accidental startup of machinery during maintenance
C) To track tool inventory
D) To speed up production
Correct Answer: B) To prevent accidental startup of machinery during maintenance
Explanation: LOTO isolates energy sources (electrical, hydraulic, etc.) to protect workers servicing equipment from unexpected energization.
Question 32
Which of these is a sign of poor mental health management at work?
A) Regular breaks
B) High staff turnover
C) Ergonomic workstations
D) Clear safety signage
Correct Answer: B) High staff turnover
Explanation: Excessive turnover may indicate unaddressed stress, bullying, or excessive workloads affecting mental health.
Question 33
What is the minimum safe voltage for portable electrical equipment in wet conditions?
A) 240V
B) 110V
C) 50V
D) 12V
Correct Answer: B) 110V (with a center-tapped earth)
Explanation: Lower voltages (110V with reduced current) minimize electrocution risks in damp environments (e.g., construction sites).
Question 34
Which factor is MOST critical in preventing slips and trips?
A) Employee height
B) Good housekeeping
C) Loud warning alarms
D) Bright wall colors
Correct Answer: B) Good housekeeping
Explanation: Prompt spill cleanup, proper storage, and clear walkways are the most effective slip/trip controls.
Question 35
What does the “ALARP” principle mean in risk management?
A) All Laws Are Regulatory Policies
B) As Low As Reasonably Practicable
C) Always Leave A Reserve Protection
D) Avoid Liability And Reduce Penalties
Correct Answer: B) As Low As Reasonably Practicable
Explanation: ALARP requires reducing risks to the lowest level feasible, balancing cost, effort, and severity.
Question 36
Which type of radiation requires lead shielding for protection?
A) Ultraviolet (UV)
B) Ionizing (e.g., X-rays)
C) Infrared
D) Radio waves
Correct Answer: B) Ionizing (e.g., X-rays)
Explanation: Ionizing radiation (X-rays, gamma rays) can penetrate tissues and requires dense materials (lead) for shielding.
Question 37
When should you wear a safety harness for roof work?
A) Only when working above 2 meters
B) Whenever a fall risk exists, regardless of height
C) Only during training
D) When the supervisor is watching
Correct Answer: B) Whenever a fall risk exists, regardless of height
Explanation: Fall protection is required if a fall could cause injury, even below 2 meters (e.g., onto sharp objects).
Question 38
What is the MAIN hazard of oxygen enrichment in confined spaces?
A) Increased fatigue
B) Higher fire/explosion risk
C) Improved visibility
D) Reduced noise levels
Correct Answer: B) Higher fire/explosion risk
Explanation: Oxygen accelerates combustion, making materials (even clothing) highly flammable.
Question 39
Which document outlines emergency procedures for major incidents?
A) Risk assessment
B) Safety policy
C) Disaster recovery plan
D) Training manual
Correct Answer: C) Disaster recovery plan
Explanation: This plan details roles, communication, and steps for responding to crises (fires, chemical releases, etc.).
Question 40
What is the safest way to lift a heavy load?
A) Bend your back and keep legs straight
B) Lift with a straight back and bent knees
C) Twist while lifting
D) Hold the load away from your body
Correct Answer: B) Lift with a straight back and bent knees
Explanation: This technique uses leg muscles (stronger than the back) and keeps the load close to the body’s center of gravity.
Question 41
Who is responsible for enforcing health and safety law in the UK?
A) The police
B) The Health and Safety Executive (HSE)
C) Trade unions
D) Insurance companies
Correct Answer: B) The Health and Safety Executive (HSE)
Explanation: The HSE (and local authorities) inspect workplaces and prosecute violations.
Question 42
What is the purpose of a “toolbox talk”?
A) To discuss pay raises
B) To provide informal safety training
C) To schedule vacations
D) To complain about managers
Correct Answer: B) To provide informal safety training
Explanation: Short, focused discussions raise awareness of specific hazards (e.g., ladder safety, new equipment).
Question 43
Which of these is a long-term effect of asbestos exposure?
A) Mesothelioma
B) Sunburn
C) Allergic rash
D) Temporary dizziness
Correct Answer: A) Mesothelioma
Explanation: Asbestos fibers cause incurable lung diseases (mesothelioma, asbestosis) decades after exposure.
Question 44
What is the first action if someone suffers an electric shock?
A) Pour water on them
B) Drag them away with bare hands
C) Turn off the power source
D) Shout for help
Correct Answer: C) Turn off the power source
Explanation: Cutting power prevents further injury. Never touch the victim until the circuit is dead—you risk becoming a second casualty.
Question 45
Which law requires employers to provide free PPE?
A) The Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations
B) The Employment Rights Act
C) The Corporate Manslaughter Act
D) The Equality Act
Correct Answer: A) The Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations
Explanation: Employers must supply, maintain, and replace PPE at no cost to workers.
Question 46
What is the primary goal of a safety culture?
A) To blame individuals for accidents
B) To prioritize safety as a shared value
C) To reduce paperwork
D) To impress clients
Correct Answer: B) To prioritize safety as a shared value
Explanation: A strong safety culture encourages collective responsibility, from management to frontline workers.
Question 47
Which hazard is associated with welding fumes?
A) Improved eyesight
B) Metal fume fever
C) Increased strength
D) Better concentration
Correct Answer: B) Metal fume fever
Explanation: Inhaling zinc, lead, or cadmium fumes causes flu-like symptoms (fever, chills).
Question 48
What is the best way to control exposure to hazardous substances?
A) Provide PPE only
B) Substitute with a safer alternative
C) Increase ventilation
D) Ignore minor exposures
Correct Answer: B) Substitute with a safer alternative
Explanation: Substitution (e.g., water-based paints) eliminates the hazard—more effective than PPE or ventilation.
Question 49
What does a yellow safety sign with a black exclamation mark indicate?
A) Fire hazard
B) Warning (general hazard)
C) Mandatory action
D) Emergency exit
Correct Answer: B) Warning (general hazard)
Explanation: Yellow/black signs warn of risks (e.g., slippery floors). Blue = mandatory, red = prohibition, green = emergency info.
Question 50
What is the final step in a risk assessment?
A) Record findings
B) Ignore trivial risks
C) Delete old reports
D) Penalize unsafe workers
Correct Answer: A) Record findings
Explanation: Documenting assessments ensures accountability and provides a reference for future reviews.
